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US Federal Constitution QUESTION #5835
Question 1
A state passes a law that restricts the right to vote in local school board elections to only those individuals who own property within the district. Is this law constitutional?
  • Yes, because property owners have a greater stake in school funding.
  • Yes, because the state has a rational basis to limit voting to 'interested' parties.
  • No, because voting is a fundamental right and the restriction fails strict scrutiny.✔️
  • No, because it violates the 24th Amendment's prohibition on poll taxes.
Correct Answer Explanation
Under Kramer v. Union Free School District, restrictions on the right to vote in general-interest elections (like school boards) are subject to strict scrutiny. A property-ownership requirement is not narrowly tailored to a compelling state interest.